roseembolism (
roseembolism) wrote2007-07-03 10:57 am
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Today's Moral Debate: Postdated sins?
So, if one considers sins to be breaking of rules or strictures that are closely linked to feelings of guilt...does it matter if after one commits a sin, one finds out that a rule wasn't broken after all? Are they crimes of intent or action?
For example, if one snitches a donut from the conference room, and then later finds out that they were available to all employees, does that expiate the sin? After all, at the time the person snitched the donut, they considered themselves to be stealing, and went ahead and did it anyway. Should the guilt remain? After all, no rule was actually broken.
It's something to consider over a cup of coffee and a donut.
For example, if one snitches a donut from the conference room, and then later finds out that they were available to all employees, does that expiate the sin? After all, at the time the person snitched the donut, they considered themselves to be stealing, and went ahead and did it anyway. Should the guilt remain? After all, no rule was actually broken.
It's something to consider over a cup of coffee and a donut.
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So many people break the law and feel no guilt at all. It is a big problem as it is guilt that helps people determine between right and wrong. It is not the ONLY thing but it is one thing.
In this particular case, if I felt guilty about taking it in the first place, knowing that it was ok after all would erase that guilt. The reverse is also true if I thought it was OK to begin with.
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(Hope the donut was tasty, though.)
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I'm actually this point thinking that it really depends on one's frame of mind, really how accommodating to oneself one is. I think I may fall into the camp "Well, that still means it was a sin of intent, AND makes me foolish as well." ;')
I mean, what's the POINT of committing a sin if it turns out that feeling of temptation and moral transgression is wasted?
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